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Bankers' Selection Committee Secretariat (BSCS) · Job ID-25106

Assistant Programmer Detailed Preparation

Assistant Programmer / Senior Officer (AP) · Grade 9 · 33 posts

Exam: 31 October 2026, Saturday · 9:30 AM – 12:30 PM · Tejgaon Government High School, Dhaka

  • Full solutions of 6 past AP papers, incl. 31.10.2026
  • Programming problem bank
  • SQL and DSA hands-on
  • Ready theory answers
  • 150 MCQs
  • Math · English · GK
  • Model tests

Chapters

About this exam

0.1What is confirmed about this exam (Circular No. 340/2026)

ItemInformation
PostAssistant Programmer / Senior Officer (Assistant Programmer), Grade 9, Job ID-25106 — 33 posts in 5 banks and 2 financial institutions under BSCS
Candidates2,482 (Roll 60001–63310) — about 75 per post
Time31/10/2026 Saturday, 9:30 AM – 12:30 PM (MCQ 1 hour + written 2 hours, same sitting)
CenterTejgaon Government High School, Tejgaon, Dhaka; no entry after 9:15
MCQ (100)Subjects Related 75 · Mathematics 15 · General Knowledge 10 · −0.25 for each wrong answer
Written (200)Subjects Related 150 · Mathematics 20 · English Language Proficiency 30
What to carryAdmit card only (1 copy; a duplicate can be downloaded from erecruitment.bb.org.bd). Phone, calculator, watch, bag, card, paper are banned. Both ears must be visible.
Not confirmed: the question setter The circular does not name one. In 2023–2026, all bank IT exams with the "1 hour MCQ + 2 hours written in one sitting" format appear in compilations under BIBM's name (latest AP 17.01.2026: "BIBM/CTI"). So BIBM is the most likely setter — this is a guess. The past questions are compiled from candidates' memory, so the wording may not be exact.

0.2Past AP papers — at a glance

CodeExamSetterWritten structure
ACombined 5 Bank AP, 03.02.2023BIBMMCQ 80 (IT 75 + Math/GK 25); written IT 150 + Math 20 + Focus 10 + Translation 20
BBangladesh Bank AP, 03.02.2023BIBM9 IT questions (150) + 4 Math (20) + Focus 10 + Translation 20
CCombined 5 Bank (10198) AP, 09.02.2024BIBM10 IT questions (150) + 4 Math (20) + Focus 20 + Letter 10
DBSCS AP / Officer (IT), 03.01.2026—Non-tech (Bangla essay, English essay, 2 translations, 10 GK) + 15 IT questions × 10
EBSCS Various Bank AP, 17.01.2026BIBM/CTI15 IT questions × 10 + 4 Math + English (10 grammar, paragraph, sentence making)
FBSCS AP (Job ID-25106), 31.10.2026 — this circular's exam—15 IT questions × 10 (4 on modern AI) + 4 Math × 5 + English 30 (10 grammar items + 20-mark essay) — fully solved in Section 2.4
GScreening (preliminary) MCQ test 2026, Set-3 (header appears to read Payra Port)—MCQ only: 100 questions, 1 hour, −0.50 per wrong answer — IT 33, Electrical 7, English 20, Bangla 20, GK 19, Math 1; fully solved in Section 2.5

The English part of E is the closest sample to this circular's "English Language Proficiency 30" — a full solution is in Chapter 7.

0.3How often each topic has appeared (6 AP papers)

TopicABCDEFExamples
DBMS / SQL✔✔✔✔✔✔M:N join query, romantic comedies, salary > avg, relationship types, Book–Borrower, ACID
Software Eng. / UML✔✔✔✔✔✔Class diagram (Book, Token-ring), Function Point, Waterfall vs Agile, SDLC, Git, ride-sharing UML
DSA✔✔✔—✔✔Heap, hashing, adjacency, stack vs queue, binary search, 2-stack queue, bubble vs merge, BST traversals
Writing programs✔✔✔—✔—Smallest in array, LCM, prime 1..n, series, Floyd triangle, flowchart
Security✔✔—✔—✔TLS private key, DH MitM, CIA, hashing vs encryption, permission precedence, SQL injection + password hashing
OOP—✔✔—✔✔Overloading/overriding/hiding, polymorphism types, inheritance types, fare polymorphism
OS✔——✔✔✔LRU page fault, boot process, process vs thread, producer–consumer, deadlock
Networking / Data comm✔——✔✔✔CRC, OSI, TCP vs UDP, OSPF, checksum, HTTP vs HTTPS
Digital logic———✔✔—Alarm truth table, NAND universal
Cloud / Virtualization / RAID———✔—✔Service models, hypervisor, VM vs container, RAID 0/5/10, backup strategy
AI / ML————✔✔ML paradigms, A* vs BFS, NLP, LLM, agentic AI + MCP, RAG
Four big lessons
  1. SQL and Software Engineering appeared in every AP paper — you cannot skip the SQL section of Chapter 4 or the UML class diagram.
  2. The style has changed: 2023–24 questions were calculation/code based (heap trace, hash table, programs); 2026 is almost all "Explain / Differentiate" (15 × 10). So you need Chapters 3–4 (hands-on) and Chapter 5 (ready theory).
  3. AI is now a core topic: paper F (31.10.2026) had four AI questions — NLP, Generative AI/LLM, agentic AI with MCP, and RAG — plus calculation questions on server capacity and cache AMAT. Revise Section 2.4 and the Cloud/AI part of Chapter 5 together.
  4. Banking context: "new employee account", "permission precedence", "RAID for bank storage" — give banking examples in your answers.

0.43-day routine (following this book)

DayTimeWhat to do
Day 1 — Wed, 28 OctFirst partAll of Chapter 1 (A, B, C) — try each question yourself first, then check the solution
Second partChapter 3: write the first 15 programs on paper + the output tracing part
NightChapter 6: MCQs on Programming, DSA and DBMS — make a list of mistakes
Day 2 — Thu, 29 OctMorningChapter 2 (D, E, 2020) — especially E, as it is the most recent AP
Noon–afternoonChapter 4: 30 SQL queries (by hand) + heap/hash/sort/paging trace
NightChapter 5: OOP, DBMS, OS, Security parts; remaining MCQs of Chapter 6
Day 3 — Fri, 30 OctMorningRest of Chapter 5 (Networking, SE, Cloud/AI, Digital) + Chapter 7 (Math, English, GK)
9:30–12:30Model Test 1 (Chapter 8) — at the real exam time, with a clock; then mark it (including −0.25)
Afternoon–nightWritten part of Model Test 2 (outline only) + mistake list + last-night checklist of Chapter 8; sleep by 11 PM
Sat, 31 OctMorningNothing new. Be at the center by 8:30. Carry only the admit card.

0.5Time and marks strategy in the hall

PartTimeStrategy
MCQ 10060 minutesRound 1: the sure ones (~35 minutes); Round 2: answer if you can eliminate one option, skip if not; last 5 minutes check the OMR
Written IT 150~90 minutesIf there are 15 questions, ~6 minutes each; known questions first; for "Differentiate", a table of 5–6 rows; in code, short comments and a sample I/O
Math 20~12 minutesShow steps — marks come for steps even with a wrong answer
English 30~18 minutesGrammar first (quick marks), then paragraph/letter; short, correct sentences
−0.25 negative marking: the maths Blind guess (4 options): ¼ − ¾ × 0.25 = +0.06 · If you can eliminate one: ⅓ − ⅔ × 0.25 = +0.17 · If you can eliminate two: ½ − ½ × 0.25 = +0.375. Decision: answer if you can surely eliminate at least one option.

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